Can't we just "go back to the original Hebrew?" No, we can't, because 1) We don't HAVE the "original" Hebrew, dating from, I don't know, about 900 BCE--it has not survived; and 2) Biblical Hebrew does not even have tenses in the sense that modern European languages have them. It has perfect, indicating that an action is complete, and imperfect, indicating that the action is continuous or ongoing (in past, present, or future). There are other forms, but they are not tenses.
I first learned this Psalm in about 1965, in the form of a beautiful song by Rabbi Shlomo Carlebach. Many of you know it. At that time I imagined that "אשׂא“ was some kind of future tense. But it isn't. The verb is "נָשָׂא" which is a Lamedh 'Aleph verb, and the form "אֶשָׂא" is its imperfect. No particular tense is implied: it is an ongoing action in the past, present, or future. When translated into Greek, Latin, and English, there has been no agreement as to tense. At this point, we have to depend on context, and the sensibilities of the translator. This is one of the reasons for differing translations.
I choose to translate the Psalm as follows:
I lift my eyes to the hills--
from where will my help come?
[This is simple and direct, and the language more or less contemporary. The second verb is also in the imperfect, with the same tense choices as before. But the next verb, which is only understood, has to be "is:"]
My help is from the Lord,
who made the heavens and the earth.
He will not let your foot slip,
he who keeps you will not sleep.
Behold, he who guards Israel
will neither slumber nor sleep.
[We don't use the word "behold" anymore, but we do understand it. It's the usual translation of "הִנֵה" and "see" didn't feel quite right, at least to me.]
(to be continued)
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